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APPSC ANALYST GRADE-II | AP POLLUTION CONTROL BOARD | MODEL PRACTICE SET MODEL QUESTION PAPERS

Analyst Grade-II

A.P. Pollution Control Board

2026-2027 Examination Practice Edition

Paper-I General Studies & Mental Ability
Paper-II Common Science & Environmental Subjects
Questions 150 in each paper
Duration 150 minutes per paper
Format Objective type, English

Scope note: This is an independently authored practice set aligned to the published APPSC scheme/syllabus and the style of recent Analyst Grade-II papers. It does not reproduce an official paper and is not an APPSC publication. Current-affairs questions should be supplemented nearer the examination date.

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APPSC ANALYST GRADE-II | AP POLLUTION CONTROL BOARD | MODEL PRACTICE SET

Candidate Instructions

  • Each paper contains 150 multiple-choice questions.

  • Select the most appropriate answer from options A-D.

  • Practice target: complete each paper in 150 minutes.

  • Use the negative-marking rule stated in the applicable official notification. The cited 2024 official scheme prescribed a one-third penalty for each wrong answer.

  • Paper-II in this model integrates Chemistry, Biochemistry, Biology and Environmental Science for broad preparation.

  • An answer key is provided after both papers.

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PAPER-I

GENERAL STUDIES & MENTAL ABILITY | 150 Questions | 150 Minutes

Name: ______________________________ Hall Ticket No.: ______________________________

Start Time: __________ End Time: __________ Score: __________

1. The constitutional body that conducts elections to Parliament and State Legislatures is

A. Finance Commission B. UPSC C. CAG D. Election Commission of India

2. Article 21 of the Constitution protects

A. life and personal liberty B. freedom of religion only C. property as a fundamental right

D. trade between States

3. The Directive Principles of State Policy are contained in

A. Part IX B. Part IV C. Part III D. Part V

4. The 73rd Constitutional Amendment is primarily associated with

A. GST Council B. Panchayati Raj institutions C. Municipal corporations D. Anti-defection law

5. The writ issued to produce a detained person before a court is

A. Habeas corpus B. Mandamus C. Certiorari D. Quo warranto

6. The Comptroller and Auditor General of India mainly audits

A. private family budgets B. public receipts and expenditure C. election manifestos D. court judgments

7. The Finance Commission is constituted under

A. Article 356 B. Article 368 C. Article 280 D. Article 32

8. The anti-defection provisions are in the

A. Twelfth Schedule B. Tenth Schedule C. Fifth Schedule D. Seventh Schedule

9. The fundamental duty to protect the natural environment appears in A. Article 19(1)(a) B. Article 300A

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C. Article 51A(g)

D. Article 14

10. The Governor of a State is appointed by the

A. Chief Justice of India B. State Legislature C. President of India D. Chief Minister

11. The Krishna River drains into the

A. Arabian Sea B. Indian Ocean west coast C. Rann of Kutch

D. Bay of Bengal

12. The major port located in Andhra Pradesh is

A. Kochi Port B. Visakhapatnam Port C. Kandla Port

D. Mormugao Port

13. The Eastern Ghats are best described as

A. young fold mountains B. coral islands C. western coastal plains

D. discontinuous hill ranges

14. The soil commonly associated with high cotton suitability is

A. black soil B. laterite soil C. desert soil

D. mountain soil

15. The southwest monsoon normally supplies most rainfall to India during

A. June to September B. January to March C. October to December only

D. the entire year uniformly

16. The Coriolis effect is caused by

A. ocean salinity B. solar eclipses C. Earth rotation

D. Earth revolution only

17. A watershed is

A. an area draining to a common outlet B. a groundwater pump C. a coastal sand dune

D. a rain gauge

18. Remote sensing primarily collects information

A. only by laboratory titration B. without direct physical contact C. only through interviews

D. only from census schedules

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19. GIS is mainly used to

A. measure blood pressure B. translate statutes C. audit bank accounts D. store, analyse and display spatial data

20. A cyclone warning system is an example of

A. post-disaster reconstruction only B. tax administration C. judicial review D. disaster preparedness

21. The Battle of Plassey took place in

A. 1757 B. 1764 C. 1857 D. 1947

22. The Indian National Congress was founded in

A. 1905 B. 1919 C. 1935 D. 1885

23. The Non-Cooperation Movement was launched in

A. 1905 B. 1930 C. 1942 D. 1920

24. The Quit India Movement was launched in

A. 1930 B. 1947 C. 1942 D. 1919

25. The Salt March is associated with

A. Civil Disobedience Movement B. Swadeshi Movement only C. Home Rule Movement D. Khilafat Conference only Progress check: Questions completed ____ / 25

26. The Satavahanas had an important association with the

A. Deccan region B. Kashmir valley C. Punjab plains only D. Himalayan kingdoms only

27. Amaravati is historically known for its

A. Mughal fort only B. Portuguese church only C. Sikh gurudwara only D. Buddhist heritage

28. Alluri Sitarama Raju is associated with the

A. Santhal rebellion

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B. Bardoli satyagraha

C. Rampa rebellion

D. Indigo revolt

29. The linguistic reorganisation leading to Andhra State occurred in

A. 1947 B. 1956 C. 1969 D. 1953

30. Andhra Pradesh was reorganised in 2014 under the

A. Andhra Pradesh Reorganisation Act, 2014

B. States Reorganisation Act, 1956 only

C. Government of India Act, 1935

D. Indian Councils Act, 1909

31. GDP measures the value of

A. only agricultural land

B. final goods and services produced within a country

C. all intermediate transactions repeatedly

D. only imports

32. Inflation means a sustained rise in the

A. general price level

B. literacy rate

C. exchange of goods by barter

D. forest cover alone

33. Fiscal deficit broadly indicates the gap between government expenditure and

A. foreign reserves only

B. total receipts excluding borrowings

C. exports only

D. household savings only

34. The Reserve Bank of India is responsible for

A. monetary policy

B. conducting parliamentary elections

C. forest surveys

D. criminal trials

35. Repo rate is the rate at which RBI lends short-term funds to

A. village panchayats only

B. foreign tourists C. commercial banks against eligible securities

D. individual taxpayers directly

36. Human Development Index includes health, education and

A. income B. rainfall C. mineral reserves

D. legislative seats

37. A progressive tax generally has a rate that

A. rises as taxable capacity rises

B. falls to zero for all incomes

C. is identical to an indirect fee

D. depends only on rainfall

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38. Disinvestment refers to government sale of

A. currency notes

B. agricultural rainfall C. equity in public enterprises

D. court buildings

39. NITI Aayog replaced the

A. Finance Commission

  • B. National Development Council only

C. Planning Commission

D. Election Commission

40. The primary sector includes

A. agriculture and allied activities

B. banking only C. software services only

D. steel retail only

41. Ozone in the stratosphere mainly absorbs

A. sound waves B. radioactive waste C. all visible light

D. ultraviolet radiation

42. Biochemical oxygen demand is an indicator commonly used for

A. soil texture only B. noise level C. wind speed

D. organic pollution in water

43. Eutrophication is caused by excessive enrichment of water with

A. sand only B. sound energy C. nutrients

D. noble gases

44. The greenhouse gas most directly associated with fossil-fuel combustion volume is

A. carbon dioxide B. helium C. argon D. neon

45. A food chain begins with

A. producers B. top carnivores C. decomposers only D. parasites only

46. The Ramsar Convention concerns

A. nuclear weapons B. postal services C. international taxation D. wetlands

47. The Paris Agreement addresses A. space debris only B. literary copyright

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C. climate change

D. ocean shipping tariffs only

48. An endemic species is one that is

A. necessarily extinct

B. restricted to a particular geographical area

C. found equally everywhere

D. always domesticated

49. Rainwater harvesting primarily helps

A. increase marine salinity

B. create earthquakes

C. eliminate evaporation completely

D. augment local water availability

50. An environmental impact assessment is undertaken to

A. replace criminal investigation

B. fix market prices

C. conduct elections

D. anticipate environmental consequences of a proposed project

Progress check: Questions completed ____ / 50

51. DNA is primarily the carrier of

A. atmospheric pressure B. thermal conductivity C. genetic information

D. sound energy

52. The SI unit of electric current is

A. ampere B. volt C. ohm D. watt

53. A vaccine primarily trains the

A. digestive tract only B. skeletal system only C. renal filtration only

D. immune system

54. Photosynthesis mainly occurs in

A. chloroplasts B. ribosomes only C. nuclei only D. lysosomes only

55. The pH of a neutral aqueous solution at about 25 C is

A. 7 B. 0 C. 5 D. 14

56. Artificial intelligence systems learn patterns mainly from

A. data B. vacuum only C. gravity only D. magnetic north only

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57. Cloud computing provides computing resources primarily over

A. mechanical gears only B. a network such as the Internet C. paper files only D. radio without processors

58. Phishing attempts commonly seek to steal

A. air samples B. soil minerals C. credentials or sensitive information

D. rainfall data only

59. A strong password is improved by

A. sharing it publicly B. using only 1234 C. length and unpredictability

D. reusing one short word

60. Two-factor authentication adds

A. a smaller screen B. a public password list C. a second verification factor D. a second username only

61. Find the next number in the series: 3, 6, 9, ___. A. 12 B. 11 C. 13 D. 15 62. Find the next number in the series: 6, 9, 12, ___. A. 15 B. 14 C. 16 D. 18 63. Find the next number in the series: 9, 12, 15, ___. A. 18 B. 17 C. 19 D. 21 64. Find the next number in the series: 12, 15, 18, ___. A. 21 B. 20 C. 22 D. 24 65. Find the next number in the series: 15, 18, 21, ___. A. 24 B. 23 C. 25 D. 27 66. Find the next number in the series: 18, 21, 24, ___. A. 27 B. 26

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C. 28 D. 30

67. Find the next number in the series: 21, 24, 27, ___. A. 30 B. 29 C. 31 D. 33 68. Find the next number in the series: 24, 27, 30, ___. A. 33 B. 32 C. 34 D. 36 69. Find the next number in the series: 27, 30, 33, ___. A. 36 B. 35 C. 37 D. 39 70. Find the next number in the series: 30, 33, 36, ___. A. 39 B. 38 C. 40 D. 42 71. Find the next number in the series: 33, 36, 39, ___. A. 41 B. 43 C. 45 D. 42 72. Find the next number in the series: 36, 39, 42, ___. A. 44 B. 46 C. 48 D. 45 73. Find the next number in the series: 39, 42, 45, ___. A. 47 B. 49 C. 51 D. 48 74. Find the next number in the series: 42, 45, 48, ___. A. 50 B. 52 C. 54 D. 51 75. Find the next number in the series: 45, 48, 51, ___. A. 53 B. 55 C. 57 D. 54 Progress check: Questions completed ____ / 75

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APPSC ANALYST GRADE-II | AP POLLUTION CONTROL BOARD | MODEL PRACTICE SET 76. Find the next number in the series: 48, 51, 54, ___.

A. 56 B. 58 C. 60 D. 57 77. Find the next number in the series: 51, 54, 57, ___. A. 59 B. 61 C. 63 D. 60 78. Find the next number in the series: 54, 57, 60, ___. A. 62 B. 64 C. 66 D. 63 79. Find the next number in the series: 57, 60, 63, ___. A. 65 B. 67 C. 69 D. 66 80. Find the next number in the series: 60, 63, 66, ___. A. 68 B. 70 C. 72 D. 69 81. Find the next number in the series: 63, 66, 69, ___. A. 73 B. 75 C. 72 D. 71 82. Find the next number in the series: 66, 69, 72, ___. A. 76 B. 78 C. 75 D. 74 83. Find the next number in the series: 69, 72, 75, ___. A. 79 B. 81 C. 78 D. 77 84. Find the next number in the series: 72, 75, 78, ___. A. 82 B. 84 C. 81 D. 80 85. Find the next number in the series: 75, 78, 81, ___. A. 85 B. 87

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C. 84 D. 83 86. Find the next number in the series: 78, 81, 84, ___. A. 88 B. 90 C. 87 D. 86 87. Find the next number in the series: 81, 84, 87, ___. A. 91 B. 93 C. 90 D. 89 88. Find the next number in the series: 84, 87, 90, ___. A. 94 B. 96 C. 93 D. 92 89. Find the next number in the series: 87, 90, 93, ___. A. 97 B. 99 C. 96 D. 95

90. Find the next number in the series: 90, 93, 96, ___.

A. 100 B. 102 C. 99 D. 98

91. In a sample of 41 observations, 11 satisfy a condition. What percentage satisfies it (rounded to two decimals)?

A. 26.83% B. 73.17% C. 11% D. 41%

92. In a sample of 42 observations, 12 satisfy a condition. What percentage satisfies it (rounded to two decimals)? A. 12% B. 42% C. 28.57% D. 71.43%

93. In a sample of 43 observations, 13 satisfy a condition. What percentage satisfies it (rounded to two decimals)?

A. 30.23% B. 69.77% C. 13% D. 43%

94. In a sample of 44 observations, 14 satisfy a condition. What percentage satisfies it (rounded to two decimals)? A. 14% B. 44% C. 31.82%

D. 68.18%

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95. In a sample of 45 observations, 15 satisfy a condition. What percentage satisfies it (rounded to two decimals)?

A. 33.33% B. 66.67% C. 15% D. 45% 96. In a sample of 46 observations, 16 satisfy a condition. What percentage satisfies it (rounded to two decimals)? A. 16% B. 46% C. 34.78% D. 65.22% 97. In a sample of 47 observations, 17 satisfy a condition. What percentage satisfies it (rounded to two decimals)? A. 36.17% B. 63.83% C. 17% D. 47% 98. In a sample of 48 observations, 18 satisfy a condition. What percentage satisfies it (rounded to two decimals)? A. 18% B. 48% C. 37.5% D. 62.5%

99. In a sample of 49 observations, 19 satisfy a condition. What percentage satisfies it (rounded to two decimals)? A. 38.78% B. 61.22% C. 19% D. 49% 100. In a sample of 50 observations, 20 satisfy a condition. What percentage satisfies it (rounded to two decimals)? A. 40.0% B. 60.0% C. 20% D. 50% Progress check: Questions completed ____ / 100

101. In a sample of 51 observations, 21 satisfy a condition. What percentage satisfies it (rounded to two decimals)? A. 21% B. 51% C. 41.18% D. 58.82%

102. In a sample of 52 observations, 22 satisfy a condition. What percentage satisfies it (rounded to two decimals)?

A. 42.31% B. 57.69% C. 22% D. 52% 103. In a sample of 53 observations, 23 satisfy a condition. What percentage satisfies it (rounded to two decimals)? A. 23% B. 53% C. 43.4% D. 56.6%

104. In a sample of 54 observations, 24 satisfy a condition. What percentage satisfies it (rounded to two decimals)?

A. 44.44%

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B. 55.56% C. 24% D. 54% 105. In a sample of 55 observations, 25 satisfy a condition. What percentage satisfies it (rounded to two decimals)? A. 25% B. 55% C. 45.45% D. 54.55% 106. In a sample of 56 observations, 26 satisfy a condition. What percentage satisfies it (rounded to two decimals)? A. 46.43% B. 53.57% C. 26% D. 56% 107. In a sample of 57 observations, 27 satisfy a condition. What percentage satisfies it (rounded to two decimals)? A. 27% B. 57% C. 47.37% D. 52.63% 108. In a sample of 58 observations, 28 satisfy a condition. What percentage satisfies it (rounded to two decimals)? A. 48.28% B. 51.72% C. 28% D. 58% 109. In a sample of 59 observations, 29 satisfy a condition. What percentage satisfies it (rounded to two decimals)? A. 29% B. 59% C. 49.15% D. 50.85% 110. In a sample of 60 observations, 30 satisfy a condition. What percentage satisfies it (rounded to two decimals)? A. 30% B. 60% C. 50.0% D. 50.0% 111. What is the arithmetic mean of 1, 3, 5 and 7? A. 6 B. 4 C. 3 D. 5 112. What is the arithmetic mean of 2, 4, 6 and 8? A. 7 B. 5 C. 4 D. 6 113. What is the arithmetic mean of 3, 5, 7 and 9? A. 8 B. 6 C. 5 D. 7

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114. What is the arithmetic mean of 4, 6, 8 and 10?

A. 8 B. 9 C. 7 D. 6 115. What is the arithmetic mean of 5, 7, 9 and 11? A. 9 B. 10 C. 8 D. 7 116. What is the arithmetic mean of 6, 8, 10 and 12? A. 8 B. 10 C. 11 D. 9 117. What is the arithmetic mean of 7, 9, 11 and 13? A. 9 B. 11 C. 12 D. 10 118. What is the arithmetic mean of 8, 10, 12 and 14? A. 11 B. 10 C. 12 D. 13 119. What is the arithmetic mean of 9, 11, 13 and 15? A. 12 B. 11 C. 13 D. 14 120. What is the arithmetic mean of 10, 12, 14 and 16? A. 15 B. 13 C. 12 D. 14 121. What is the arithmetic mean of 11, 13, 15 and 17? A. 16 B. 14 C. 13 D. 15 122. What is the arithmetic mean of 12, 14, 16 and 18? A. 17 B. 15 C. 14 D. 16 123. What is the arithmetic mean of 13, 15, 17 and 19? A. 18 B. 16

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C. 15 D. 17

124. What is the arithmetic mean of 14, 16, 18 and 20? A. 18 B. 19 C. 17 D. 16 125. What is the arithmetic mean of 15, 17, 19 and 21? A. 19 B. 20 C. 18 D. 17 Progress check: Questions completed ____ / 125 126. What is the arithmetic mean of 16, 18, 20 and 22? A. 18 B. 20 C. 21 D. 19

127. What is the arithmetic mean of 17, 19, 21 and 23? A. 19 B. 21 C. 22 D. 20

128. What is the arithmetic mean of 18, 20, 22 and 24?

A. 21 B. 20 C. 22 D. 23 129. What is the arithmetic mean of 19, 21, 23 and 25? A. 22 B. 21 C. 23 D. 24 130. What is the arithmetic mean of 20, 22, 24 and 26? A. 25 B. 23 C. 22 D. 24

131. All laboratories are workplaces. Some workplaces are regulated premises. Which conclusion is definitely valid? A. Every workplace is regulated B. All laboratories are workplaces

C. All regulated premises are laboratories

D. No workplace is a laboratory

132. If POLLUTE is coded by shifting every letter one place forward, the first coded letter is

A. P B. R C. O D. Q

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133. A person walks 5 km north and then 5 km east. The final direction from the starting point is

A. West B. North-east C. North-west D. South-east

134. Statement: No untreated effluent is safe for discharge. Sample X is untreated effluent. Conclusion:

A. Sample X is air B. Sample X is not safe for discharge C. Sample X is necessarily potable D. No conclusion is possible

135. If A is older than B and B is older than C, then

A. B is younger than C B. A is older than C C. C is older than A D. A and C are equal in age

136. The median of 3, 7, 9, 11, 15 is

A. 11 B. 9 C. 7 D. 10 137. The mode of 2, 3, 3, 4, 5 is A. 3 B. 2 C. 4 D. 5

138. Variance is a measure of

A. central location only B. sample size only C. direction D. dispersion

139. A bar chart is most suitable for comparing

A. continuous time without grouping only B. discrete categories C. chemical molecular structure D. legal citations only

140. If the probability of an event is 0, the event is

A. equally likely B. independent by definition C. impossible D. certain 141. If a monitoring team inspects 141 sites and one-fifth require follow-up, how many require follow-up when the result is an integer?

A. 28.2 B. 141 C. 140 D. 705

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142. If a monitoring team inspects 142 sites and one-fifth require follow-up, how many require follow-up when the result is an integer?

A. 142 B. 141 C. 710 D. 28.4 143. If a monitoring team inspects 143 sites and one-fifth require follow-up, how many require follow-up when the result is an integer?

A. 142 B. 715 C. 28.6 D. 143

144. If a monitoring team inspects 144 sites and one-fifth require follow-up, how many require follow-up when the result is an integer? A. 720 B. 28.8 C. 144 D. 143

145. If a monitoring team inspects 145 sites and one-fifth require follow-up, how many require follow-up when the result is an integer? A. 29 B. 145 C. 144 D. 725

146. If a monitoring team inspects 146 sites and one-fifth require follow-up, how many require follow-up when the result is an integer? A. 146 B. 145 C. 730 D. 29.2

147. If a monitoring team inspects 147 sites and one-fifth require follow-up, how many require follow-up when the result is an integer? A. 146 B. 735 C. 29.4 D. 147

148. If a monitoring team inspects 148 sites and one-fifth require follow-up, how many require follow-up when the result is an integer? A. 740 B. 29.6 C. 148 D. 147

149. If a monitoring team inspects 149 sites and one-fifth require follow-up, how many require follow-up when the result is an integer? A. 29.8 B. 149 C. 148 D. 745

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150. If a monitoring team inspects 150 sites and one-fifth require follow-up, how many require follow-up when the result is an integer?

A. 30

B. 150

C. 149

D. 750

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PAPER-II

CHEMISTRY, BIOCHEMISTRY, BIOLOGY & ENVIRONMENTAL SCIENCE | 150 Questions | 150 Minutes

Name: ______________________________ Hall Ticket No.: ______________________________

Start Time: __________ End Time: __________ Score: __________

1. [CHEM] The atomic number equals the number of

A. neutrons only

B. nucleons only C. electron shells

D. protons

2. [CHEM] Avogadro constant is approximately

A. 6.022 x 10^23 mol^-1 B. 9.81 mol^-1 C. 3.00 x 10^8 mol^-1 D. 1.602 x 10^-19 mol^-1

3. [CHEM] The oxidation state of oxygen in most compounds is

A. 0 B. -1 always C. -2

D. +2

4. [CHEM] A catalyst increases reaction rate mainly by

A. increasing equilibrium constant permanently

B. adding product mass

C. changing conservation of energy

D. lowering activation energy

5. [CHEM] A buffer solution resists changes in

A. temperature absolutely B. mass number C. atomic radius only

D. pH

6. [CHEM] Beer-Lambert law relates absorbance to concentration and

A. magnetic moment only

B. path length C. viscosity only

D. boiling point only

7. [CHEM] The functional group in alcohols is

A. carboxyl B. amino C. aldehyde D. hydroxyl

8. [CHEM] The IUPAC name of CH3COOH is

A. ethanoic acid

B. methanoic acid C. ethanol D. ethanal

9. [CHEM] Hardness in water is commonly caused by salts of calcium and

A. sodium only B. potassium only

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C. silver only

D. magnesium

10. [CHEM] EDTA titration is commonly used to determine

A. wind direction B. water hardness C. chlorophyll

  • D. sound intensity

11. [CHEM] Chemical oxygen demand estimates oxygen equivalent needed to oxidise

A. only dissolved nitrogen B. only suspended sand C. only chloride

D. oxidisable matter in water

12. [CHEM] The principal instrument for measuring absorbance in UV-visible analysis is a

A. spectrophotometer B. hydrometer C. anemometer

D. seismograph

13. [CHEM] Chromatography separates components based on differential distribution between

A. nucleus and cytoplasm B. anode and cathode only C. solid and gravity only

D. stationary and mobile phases

14. [CHEM] In gas chromatography, the mobile phase is a

A. liquid only B. solid C. plasma only D. gas

15. [CHEM] The standard electrode potential is measured relative to the

A. platinum wire without reference

B. standard hydrogen electrode C. calomel electrode only

D. glass electrode only

16. [CHEM] A redox reaction involves transfer of

A. electrons B. neutrons C. photons only

D. sound waves

17. [CHEM] The common oxidation state of alkali metals in compounds is

A. -1 B. 0 C. +1 D. +2

18. [CHEM] The geometry of methane is

A. tetrahedral B. square planar C. linear D. trigonal planar

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19. [CHEM] Benzene is aromatic because it satisfies

A. Raoult law

B. Huckel 4n+2 pi electron rule C. octet rule only

D. Boyle law

20. [CHEM] The polymer formed from ethene is

A. nylon-6,6 B. polyethylene C. polystyrene

D. PVC

21. [BIOC] Proteins are polymers of

A. amino acids B. fatty acids C. monosaccharides only

D. nucleotides only

22. [BIOC] Enzymes primarily act as

A. biological catalysts B. structural minerals C. genetic chromosomes only

D. inorganic solvents

23. [BIOC] The Michaelis constant Km is the substrate concentration at

A. half maximum velocity B. zero velocity C. twice maximum velocity

D. enzyme denaturation only

24. [BIOC] Glycolysis occurs in the

A. mitochondrial matrix only B. nucleus C. Golgi lumen D. cytosol

25. [BIOC] The citric acid cycle occurs mainly in the

A. cell wall B. ribosome C. lysosome D. mitochondrial matrix

Progress check: Questions completed ____ / 25

26. [BIOC] ATP is commonly described as the cell’s

A. structural chromosome B. digestive pigment C. extracellular salt

D. energy currency

27. [BIOC] DNA contains the sugar

A. ribose B. glucose C. fructose D. deoxyribose

28. [BIOC] RNA contains uracil instead of

A. adenine

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B. guanine

C. cytosine D. thymine

29. [BIOC] The peptide bond links the carboxyl group of one amino acid to the

  • A. sulphate group only

B. methyl group only

C. amino group of another

D. phosphate group only

30. [BIOC] A competitive inhibitor typically increases apparent Km while

A. Km becomes zero

B. enzyme concentration doubles

C. Vmax remains unchanged

D. Vmax becomes zero always

31. [BIOC] Denaturation generally disrupts protein secondary and tertiary structure without necessarily breaking

A. hydrogen bonds B. ionic interactions C. hydrophobic interactions

D. all peptide bonds

32. [BIOC] The major oxygen-transport protein in blood is

A. keratin B. actin C. haemoglobin

D. collagen

33. [BIOC] Insulin primarily helps regulate

A. blood glucose B. blood nitrogen only C. bone calcium only

D. body temperature only

34. [BIOC] Urea is produced mainly through nitrogen metabolism in the

A. skin B. lung alveoli C. retina D. liver

35. [BIOC] NAD+ commonly functions as an

A. electron carrier B. structural lipid C. DNA base

D. mineral crystal

36. [BIOC] Lipids yield glycerol and fatty acids upon

A. nitration B. sublimation C. hydrolysis D. polymerisation only

37. [BIOC] The biuret test detects

A. proteins B. chloride only C. vitamin C only D. starch only

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APPSC ANALYST GRADE-II | AP POLLUTION CONTROL BOARD | MODEL PRACTICE SET

38. [BIOC] Iodine solution produces a blue-black colour with

A. protein B. lipid C. DNA D. starch

39. [BIOC] The primary structure of a protein refers to its

A. chromosome number B. amino acid sequence C. overall cell shape D. lipid bilayer

40. [BIOC] PCR is used to

A. measure wind speed B. separate crude oil C. sterilise glassware only

D. amplify DNA

41. [BIO] The basic unit of life is the

A. tissue B. organ C. ecosystem D. cell

42. [BIO] Mitosis generally produces

A. two genetically similar daughter cells B. four haploid cells C. one bacterial spore only

D. two unrelated species

43. [BIO] Meiosis reduces chromosome number by

A. half B. double C. one chromosome only D. zero

44. [BIO] Bacteria are generally

A. acellular proteins B. plant tissues C. prokaryotic

D. multicellular eukaryotic only

45. [BIO] Viruses require a host cell for

A. replication B. sedimentation only C. evaporation D. crystallisation only

46. [BIO] Gram staining differentiates bacteria mainly by differences in

A. DNA sequence directly B. colony smell C. cell wall structure D. flagellar length only

47. [BIO] Autotrophs manufacture organic matter primarily using

A. fermentation only B. light or chemical energy

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APPSC ANALYST GRADE-II | AP POLLUTION CONTROL BOARD | MODEL PRACTICE SET

C. predation only

D. parasitism only

48. [BIO] Nitrogen fixation converts atmospheric nitrogen into

A. silica

B. biologically usable nitrogen compounds

C. oxygen gas

D. carbon dioxide

49. [BIO] A population consists of organisms of the same species in

A. all continents necessarily

B. different kingdoms only

C. a laboratory reagent

D. a defined area

50. [BIO] Primary succession begins where

A. only fish migrate

B. agriculture is harvested annually

C. soil is initially absent

D. a mature forest is unchanged

Progress check: Questions completed ____ / 50

51. [BIO] Biomagnification refers to increasing concentration of a persistent pollutant at

A. deeper soil only

B. greater rainfall

C. higher trophic levels

D. lower atmospheric pressure

52. [BIO] Coliform bacteria are used as indicators of

A. faecal contamination

B. air pressure C. soil salinity only

D. noise pollution

53. [BIO] The membrane surrounding the cell regulates

A. planetary motion

B. weather only

C. geological folding

D. movement of substances into and out of the cell

54. [BIO] Chlorophyll is essential for

A. urea formation

B. photosynthesis C. blood clotting

D. nerve transmission only

55. [BIO] The nephron is the functional unit of the

A. liver B. lung C. heart D. kidney

56. [BIO] Antibodies are produced by differentiated B cells called

A. neurons B. plasma cells C. red blood cells D. platelets

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APPSC ANALYST GRADE-II | AP POLLUTION CONTROL BOARD | MODEL PRACTICE SET

57. [BIO] A vector in epidemiology transmits

A. sound

B. a pathogen

C. only oxygen

D. only nutrients

58. [BIO] The incubation period is the interval between exposure and

A. DNA extraction

B. laboratory calibration

C. appearance of symptoms

D. complete ecosystem recovery

59. [BIO] Composting is primarily a process of

A. metal smelting

B. plastic polymerisation

C. radioactive decay

D. biological decomposition of organic waste

60. [BIO] Activated sludge contains a community rich in

A. glass fibres

B. microorganisms

C. granite particles only

D. petroleum only

61. [ENV] Ambient air quality refers to the quality of

A. water vapour in a boiler only

B. soil gas only

C. outdoor air

D. air inside a sealed cylinder only

62. [ENV] PM2.5 denotes particles with aerodynamic diameter up to

A. 2.5 centimetres B. 0.25 metres C. 2.5 micrometres

D. 25 millimetres

63. [ENV] Sulphur dioxide emissions are strongly associated with combustion of

A. pure hydrogen only

B. distilled water

C. helium

D. sulphur-containing fuels

64. [ENV] Ground-level ozone is a

A. secondary pollutant

B. primary mineral

C. heavy metal

D. greenhouse gas emitted directly only

65. [ENV] A bag filter is used to control

A. groundwater hardness

B. biological pathogens only

C. particulate emissions

D. thermal pollution only

66. [ENV] An electrostatic precipitator removes particles using

A. gravity alone B. boiling

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APPSC ANALYST GRADE-II | AP POLLUTION CONTROL BOARD | MODEL PRACTICE SET

C. chlorination

D. electrical charging and collection

67. [ENV] Noise level is commonly expressed in

A. kelvin B. moles C. decibels

D. litres

68. [ENV] Leq represents

A. liquid equilibrium only

B. electrical charge

C. ecological quotient

D. equivalent continuous sound level

69. [ENV] Primary wastewater treatment mainly removes

A. all pathogens completely

B. greenhouse gases

C. settleable and floating solids

D. all dissolved salts

70. [ENV] Secondary wastewater treatment mainly uses

A. nuclear fission

B. dry sieving only

C. magnetic separation only

D. biological processes

71. [ENV] Tertiary treatment is used for

A. advanced polishing or specific contaminant removal

B. only coarse screening

C. only grit removal

D. only pumping

72. [ENV] Anaerobic digestion produces a gas mixture rich in

A. ozone B. argon C. methane

D. oxygen

73. [ENV] A sanitary landfill includes measures for managing leachate and

A. ocean tides

B. solar flares C. earth rotation

D. landfill gas

74. [ENV] Hazardous waste may be classified by properties such as toxicity and

A. sweetness B. transparency only C. musical pitch D. ignitability

75. [ENV] The Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act in India was enacted in

A. 1974 B. 1950 C. 1981 D. 1986 Progress check: Questions completed ____ / 75

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APPSC ANALYST GRADE-II | AP POLLUTION CONTROL BOARD | MODEL PRACTICE SET

76. [ENV] The Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act was enacted in

A. 1974 B. 1986 C. 1991 D. 1981

77. [ENV] The Environment (Protection) Act was enacted in

A. 1986 B. 1972 C. 1974 D. 2002

78. [ENV] Consent to Establish is generally sought

A. only after permanent closure B. after every salary payment C. only after court conviction

D. before establishing an industrial unit

79. [ENV] The polluter pays principle places pollution-control cost on the A. future generation only B. weather department C. polluter D. unaffected neighbour only

80. [ENV] The precautionary principle supports preventive action when there is A. perfect certainty of no harm B. no scientific question C. only financial profit D. risk of serious environmental harm

81. [CHEM] A water sample contains 11 mg/L solute. What mass is present in 5 L? A. 55 mg B. 16 mg C. 550 mg D. 2.2 mg

82. [CHEM] A water sample contains 12 mg/L solute. What mass is present in 5 L? A. 17 mg B. 600 mg C. 2.4 mg D. 60 mg 83. [CHEM] A water sample contains 13 mg/L solute. What mass is present in 5 L? A. 650 mg B. 2.6 mg C. 65 mg D. 18 mg 84. [CHEM] A water sample contains 14 mg/L solute. What mass is present in 5 L? A. 2.8 mg B. 70 mg C. 19 mg D. 700 mg 85. [CHEM] A water sample contains 15 mg/L solute. What mass is present in 5 L? A. 75 mg B. 20 mg

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APPSC ANALYST GRADE-II | AP POLLUTION CONTROL BOARD | MODEL PRACTICE SET

C. 750 mg D. 3.0 mg

86. [CHEM] A water sample contains 16 mg/L solute. What mass is present in 5 L? A. 21 mg B. 800 mg C. 3.2 mg D. 80 mg 87. [CHEM] A water sample contains 17 mg/L solute. What mass is present in 5 L? A. 850 mg B. 3.4 mg C. 85 mg D. 22 mg 88. [CHEM] A water sample contains 18 mg/L solute. What mass is present in 5 L? A. 3.6 mg B. 90 mg C. 23 mg D. 900 mg 89. [CHEM] A water sample contains 19 mg/L solute. What mass is present in 5 L? A. 95 mg B. 24 mg C. 950 mg D. 3.8 mg 90. [CHEM] A water sample contains 20 mg/L solute. What mass is present in 5 L? A. 100 mg B. 25 mg C. 1000 mg D. 4.0 mg 91. [CHEM] A water sample contains 21 mg/L solute. What mass is present in 5 L? A. 26 mg B. 1050 mg C. 4.2 mg D. 105 mg 92. [CHEM] A water sample contains 22 mg/L solute. What mass is present in 5 L? A. 1100 mg B. 4.4 mg C. 110 mg D. 27 mg 93. [CHEM] A water sample contains 23 mg/L solute. What mass is present in 5 L? A. 4.6 mg B. 115 mg C. 28 mg D. 1150 mg 94. [CHEM] A water sample contains 24 mg/L solute. What mass is present in 5 L? A. 120 mg B. 29 mg C. 1200 mg D. 4.8 mg

Practice material - not an official APPSC question paper | 29

APPSC ANALYST GRADE-II | AP POLLUTION CONTROL BOARD | MODEL PRACTICE SET

95. [CHEM] A water sample contains 25 mg/L solute. What mass is present in 5 L?

A. 30 mg B. 1250 mg C. 5.0 mg D. 125 mg

96. [CHEM] A water sample contains 26 mg/L solute. What mass is present in 5 L? A. 1300 mg B. 5.2 mg C. 130 mg D. 31 mg 97. [CHEM] A water sample contains 27 mg/L solute. What mass is present in 5 L? A. 5.4 mg B. 135 mg C. 32 mg D. 1350 mg 98. [CHEM] A water sample contains 28 mg/L solute. What mass is present in 5 L? A. 140 mg B. 33 mg C. 1400 mg D. 5.6 mg

99. [CHEM] A water sample contains 29 mg/L solute. What mass is present in 5 L? A. 34 mg B. 1450 mg C. 5.8 mg D. 145 mg 100. [CHEM] A water sample contains 30 mg/L solute. What mass is present in 5 L? A. 35 mg B. 1500 mg C. 6.0 mg D. 150 mg Progress check: Questions completed ____ / 100

101. [ENV] An effluent concentration falls from 105 mg/L to 21 mg/L. What is the removal efficiency (one decimal)? A. 0.8% B. 84% C. 80.0% D. 20.0%

102. [ENV] An effluent concentration falls from 110 mg/L to 22 mg/L. What is the removal efficiency (one decimal)?

A. 88% B. 80.0% C. 20.0% D. 0.9%

103. [ENV] An effluent concentration falls from 115 mg/L to 23 mg/L. What is the removal efficiency (one decimal)?

A. 20.0% B. 0.9% C. 92% D. 80.0%

104. [ENV] An effluent concentration falls from 120 mg/L to 24 mg/L. What is the removal efficiency (one decimal)?

A. 1.0%

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APPSC ANALYST GRADE-II | AP POLLUTION CONTROL BOARD | MODEL PRACTICE SET

B. 96% C. 80.0% D. 20.0% 105. [ENV] An effluent concentration falls from 125 mg/L to 25 mg/L. What is the removal efficiency (one decimal)? A. 80.0% B. 20.0% C. 1.0% D. 100% 106. [ENV] An effluent concentration falls from 130 mg/L to 26 mg/L. What is the removal efficiency (one decimal)? A. 20.0% B. 1.0% C. 104% D. 80.0% 107. [ENV] An effluent concentration falls from 135 mg/L to 27 mg/L. What is the removal efficiency (one decimal)? A. 108% B. 80.0% C. 20.0% D. 1.1% 108. [ENV] An effluent concentration falls from 140 mg/L to 28 mg/L. What is the removal efficiency (one decimal)? A. 80.0% B. 20.0% C. 1.1% D. 112% 109. [ENV] An effluent concentration falls from 145 mg/L to 29 mg/L. What is the removal efficiency (one decimal)? A. 1.2% B. 116% C. 80.0% D. 20.0% 110. [ENV] An effluent concentration falls from 150 mg/L to 30 mg/L. What is the removal efficiency (one decimal)? A. 1.2% B. 120% C. 80.0% D. 20.0% 111. [ENV] An effluent concentration falls from 155 mg/L to 31 mg/L. What is the removal efficiency (one decimal)? A. 80.0% B. 20.0% C. 1.2% D. 124% 112. [ENV] An effluent concentration falls from 160 mg/L to 32 mg/L. What is the removal efficiency (one decimal)? A. 20.0% B. 1.3% C. 128% D. 80.0% 113. [ENV] An effluent concentration falls from 165 mg/L to 33 mg/L. What is the removal efficiency (one decimal)? A. 132% B. 80.0% C. 20.0% D. 1.3%

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APPSC ANALYST GRADE-II | AP POLLUTION CONTROL BOARD | MODEL PRACTICE SET

114. [ENV] An effluent concentration falls from 170 mg/L to 34 mg/L. What is the removal efficiency (one decimal)?

A. 80.0%

B. 20.0% C. 1.4% D. 136%

115. [ENV] An effluent concentration falls from 175 mg/L to 35 mg/L. What is the removal efficiency (one decimal)?

A. 1.4%

B. 140% C. 80.0% D. 20.0%

116. [ENV] The chief objective of environmental monitoring is to

A. predict every accident with certainty

B. generate reliable information on environmental quality

C. replace all regulation

D. eliminate sampling

117. [ENV] A representative composite sample is useful when quality

A. is irrelevant

B. cannot be measured

C. varies over time

D. never changes

118. [ENV] Chain of custody documentation helps preserve

A. sample colour only

B. laboratory temperature only

C. instrument brand only

D. sample traceability

119. [ENV] Quality assurance in a laboratory is a planned system to ensure

A. zero documentation

B. random calibration

C. data reliability

D. maximum reagent consumption

120. [ENV] A field blank helps detect contamination introduced during

A. sampling and transport

B. policy drafting

C. mapping only

D. budget approval

121. [ENV] Calibration establishes the relationship between instrument response and

A. legal opinions B. known standards C. unknown rumours

D. weather forecasts only

122. [ENV] Detection limit is the lowest amount that can be

A. seen by unaided eye always

B. reliably distinguished from background

C. weighed without a balance

D. legally prohibited

123. [ENV] BOD testing commonly uses incubation for a specified period under controlled

A. temperature

B. pressure of outer space

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APPSC ANALYST GRADE-II | AP POLLUTION CONTROL BOARD | MODEL PRACTICE SET

C. sound frequency

D. magnetic field only

124. [ENV] Dissolved oxygen in water can be measured by an electrode or

A. Soxhlet method only

B. Mohr hardness method

C. Winkler method

D. Kjeldahl method only

125. [ENV] Total suspended solids are determined by filtration followed by

A. drying and weighing

B. titration with acid only

C. distillation of nitrogen

D. PCR

Progress check: Questions completed ____ / 125

126. [ENV] Alkalinity reflects the acid-neutralising capacity of

A. air particulates

B. sound

C. soil texture only

D. water

127. [ENV] Turbidity indicates light scattering by

A. pH alone

B. suspended and colloidal matter

C. dissolved oxygen alone

D. temperature alone

128. [ENV] A grab sample represents conditions at

A. all places for all years

B. only average annual flow

C. the entire watershed automatically

D. a specific place and time

129. [ENV] Ecotoxicology studies harmful effects of chemicals on

A. only buildings

B. organisms and ecosystems

C. only machines

D. only taxation

130. [ENV] Life-cycle assessment evaluates impacts across

A. one laboratory reading only

  • B. one election cycle

C. one rainfall event only

D. stages of a product system

131. [ENV] For quality control set 131, which action best supports defensible analytical results?

  • A. Delete raw observations

B. Use expired standards knowingly

C. Report results without units

D. Use calibrated equipment and documented procedures

132. [ENV] For quality control set 132, which action best supports defensible analytical results?

A. Use expired standards knowingly

B. Report results without units

C. Use calibrated equipment and documented procedures

D. Delete raw observations

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APPSC ANALYST GRADE-II | AP POLLUTION CONTROL BOARD | MODEL PRACTICE SET

133. [ENV] For quality control set 133, which action best supports defensible analytical results?

  • A. Report results without units

  • B. Use calibrated equipment and documented procedures

  • C. Delete raw observations

D. Use expired standards knowingly

134. [ENV] For quality control set 134, which action best supports defensible analytical results?

  • A. Use calibrated equipment and documented procedures

  • B. Delete raw observations

  • C. Use expired standards knowingly

  • D. Report results without units

135. [ENV] For quality control set 135, which action best supports defensible analytical results?

  • A. Delete raw observations

B. Use expired standards knowingly

C. Report results without units

D. Use calibrated equipment and documented procedures

136. [ENV] For quality control set 136, which action best supports defensible analytical results?

  • A. Use expired standards knowingly

  • B. Report results without units

  • C. Use calibrated equipment and documented procedures

  • D. Delete raw observations

137. [ENV] For quality control set 137, which action best supports defensible analytical results?

  • A. Report results without units

  • B. Use calibrated equipment and documented procedures

  • C. Delete raw observations

D. Use expired standards knowingly

138. [ENV] For quality control set 138, which action best supports defensible analytical results?

  • A. Use calibrated equipment and documented procedures

B. Delete raw observations

C. Use expired standards knowingly

  • D. Report results without units

139. [ENV] For quality control set 139, which action best supports defensible analytical results?

  • A. Delete raw observations

B. Use expired standards knowingly

C. Report results without units

D. Use calibrated equipment and documented procedures

140. [ENV] For quality control set 140, which action best supports defensible analytical results?

  • A. Delete raw observations

B. Use expired standards knowingly

C. Report results without units

D. Use calibrated equipment and documented procedures

141. [ENV] For quality control set 141, which action best supports defensible analytical results?

  • A. Use expired standards knowingly

  • B. Report results without units

  • C. Use calibrated equipment and documented procedures

  • D. Delete raw observations

142. [ENV] For quality control set 142, which action best supports defensible analytical results?

  • A. Report results without units

B. Use calibrated equipment and documented procedures

Practice material - not an official APPSC question paper | 34

APPSC ANALYST GRADE-II | AP POLLUTION CONTROL BOARD | MODEL PRACTICE SET

C. Delete raw observations

D. Use expired standards knowingly

143. [ENV] For quality control set 143, which action best supports defensible analytical results?

  • A. Use calibrated equipment and documented procedures

B. Delete raw observations

C. Use expired standards knowingly

D. Report results without units

144. [ENV] For quality control set 144, which action best supports defensible analytical results?

  • A. Delete raw observations

B. Use expired standards knowingly

C. Report results without units

D. Use calibrated equipment and documented procedures

145. [ENV] For quality control set 145, which action best supports defensible analytical results?

  • A. Use expired standards knowingly

B. Report results without units

C. Use calibrated equipment and documented procedures

  • D. Delete raw observations

146. [ENV] For quality control set 146, which action best supports defensible analytical results?

  • A. Report results without units

B. Use calibrated equipment and documented procedures

C. Delete raw observations

D. Use expired standards knowingly

147. [ENV] For quality control set 147, which action best supports defensible analytical results?

  • A. Use calibrated equipment and documented procedures

B. Delete raw observations

C. Use expired standards knowingly

D. Report results without units

148. [ENV] For quality control set 148, which action best supports defensible analytical results?

  • A. Delete raw observations

B. Use expired standards knowingly

C. Report results without units

D. Use calibrated equipment and documented procedures

149. [ENV] For quality control set 149, which action best supports defensible analytical results?

A. Use expired standards knowingly

B. Report results without units

C. Use calibrated equipment and documented procedures

D. Delete raw observations

150. [ENV] For quality control set 150, which action best supports defensible analytical results?

A. Use expired standards knowingly

B. Report results without units

  • C. Use calibrated equipment and documented procedures

  • D. Delete raw observations

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APPSC ANALYST GRADE-II | AP POLLUTION CONTROL BOARD | MODEL PRACTICE SET

Answer Key

Paper-I

Q-Ans Q-Ans Q-Ans Q-Ans Q-Ans Q-Ans Q-Ans Q-Ans Q-Ans Q-Ans
1-D 2-A 3-B 4-B 5-A 6-B 7-C 8-B 9-C 10-C
11-D 12-B 13-D 14-A 15-A 16-C 17-A 18-B 19-D 20-D
21-A 22-D 23-D 24-C 25-A 26-A 27-D 28-C 29-D 30-A
31-B 32-A 33-B 34-A 35-C 36-A 37-A 38-C 39-C 40-A
41-D 42-D 43-C 44-A 45-A 46-D 47-C 48-B 49-D 50-D
51-C 52-A 53-D 54-A 55-A 56-A 57-B 58-C 59-C 60-C
61-A 62-A 63-A 64-A 65-A 66-A 67-A 68-A 69-A 70-A
71-D 72-D 73-D 74-D 75-D 76-D 77-D 78-D 79-D 80-D
81-C 82-C 83-C 84-C 85-C 86-C 87-C 88-C 89-C 90-C
91-A 92-C 93-A 94-C 95-A 96-C 97-A 98-C 99-A 100-A
101-C 102-A 103-C 104-A 105-C 106-A 107-C 108-A 109-C 110-C
111-B 112-B 113-B 114-C 115-C 116-D 117-D 118-A 119-A 120-B
121-B 122-B 123-B 124-C 125-C 126-D 127-D 128-A 129-A 130-B
131-B 132-D 133-B 134-B 135-B 136-B 137-A 138-D 139-B 140-C
141-A 142-D 143-C 144-B 145-A 146-D 147-C 148-B 149-A 150-A

Paper-II

Q-Ans Q-Ans Q-Ans Q-Ans Q-Ans Q-Ans Q-Ans Q-Ans Q-Ans Q-Ans
1-D 2-A 3-C 4-D 5-D 6-B 7-D 8-A 9-D 10-B
11-D 12-A 13-D 14-D 15-B 16-A 17-C 18-A 19-B 20-B
21-A 22-A 23-A 24-D 25-D 26-D 27-D 28-D 29-C 30-C
31-D 32-C 33-A 34-D 35-A 36-C 37-A 38-D 39-B 40-D
41-D 42-A 43-A 44-C 45-A 46-C 47-B 48-B 49-D 50-C
51-C 52-A 53-D 54-B 55-D 56-B 57-B 58-C 59-D 60-B
61-C 62-C 63-D 64-A 65-C 66-D 67-C 68-D 69-C 70-D
71-A 72-C 73-D 74-D 75-A 76-D 77-A 78-D 79-C 80-D
81-A 82-D 83-C 84-B 85-A 86-D 87-C 88-B 89-A 90-A
91-D 92-C 93-B 94-A 95-D 96-C 97-B 98-A 99-D 100-D
101-C 102-B 103-D 104-C 105-A 106-D 107-B 108-A 109-C 110-C
111-A 112-D 113-B 114-A 115-C 116-B 117-C 118-D 119-C 120-A
121-B 122-B 123-A 124-C 125-A 126-D 127-B 128-D 129-B 130-D
131-D 132-C 133-B 134-A 135-D 136-C 137-B 138-A 139-D 140-D
141-C 142-B 143-A 144-D 145-C 146-B 147-A 148-D 149-C 150-C

Reference Basis

  1. Andhra Pradesh Public Service Commission, official scheme and syllabus for Analyst Grade-II in A.P. Pollution Control Board (2024 publication).

  2. Recent APPSC Analyst Grade-II Paper-I and subject Paper-II listings for the examinations held in March 2025, used only to understand paper structure and subject coverage.

  3. Notification 21/2026 shared by the candidate, used as the target recruitment context.

Preparation note: Verify the final scheme, marks and eligibility directly against the applicable APPSC notification before the examination.

Practice material - not an official APPSC question paper | 36

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